不知道这些题对于那些考CCNA的兄弟是否有帮

我这儿有些题,不知道对那些考CCNP的兄弟是否有帮助!请进!:expr003:

1 Which of the following are true regarding route filtering?

It uses the same technique as packet filtering; it’s based on standard or extended access-lists
It is required when using EIGRP and OSPF at the same time
Unlike packet filtering (which uses inverted subnet masks, route filtering uses normal subnet masks
Route filtering is used only while performing route redistribution
2 Which of these are benefits of incorporating hierarchical addressing?

You can summarize multiple routes into single route summaries, making the network more scalable
A contiguous address assignment allows the most efficient use of address
Reduction in the number of routing table entries for participating routers
A more efficient allocation of addresses network-wide
A reduced number of routing table entries for participating routers

3 How can a single IP statement indicate many IP addresses?

Source-route bridge
Route summarization
Helper address
Default gateway
Passive interface

4 What essential reasons make OSPF better than RIP1?

OSPF can select paths based on bandwidth
Link-State protocols generally have faster convergence than Distance-Vector
OSPF supports VLSM
OSPF has no hop count limitation because it is based on path cost
OSPF can select paths based on bandwidth

5 Which of the following are true of EIGRP?

It only sends change-updates to the systems that are affected by the event
It can provide client address conflict resolution
It is considerably more complex than OSPF
It supports Variable Length Subnet Masking
It supports compression over the WAN link
6 What command will show the link-state database?

7 Which of the statements below correctly describes the GBP regular expression ‘^200_’?

Match only AS 200
Match all AS’s
Match strings received from AS 200
Match strings originating from AS 200

8 What is a BGP peer?

A BGP neighbor that the router has formed a TCP connection with
Another BGP router that the router is currently speaking with
Another BGO router that the router is unable to speak with
ABGP neighbor that the router has a broken TCP connection with

9 Which of the following are true of BGP?

IBGP is used between the AS
IBGP is used within the AS
EBGP is used between the AS
EBGP is used within the AS
10 What command will view all and only EIGRP-built routes?
11 An OSPF stubby or totally stubby Area can only exist if adjacent to which of the following?

LSA
LSP
BDR
ABR
DR
LSU
12 What command allows the operator to scroll through all currently TCP/IP routing protocols while displaying detailed information about them?

13 You stop sending RIP broadcasts from all router interfaces that do not require it. You notice that RIP is running on Ethernet0, Serial0, and Serial1 on the router in question. You find out that Serial0 does not need RIP. You want to shut down that protocol but only on that interface without using access-lists. How?

Configure RIP using the ‘passive interface’ command
Configure RIP using the ‘no router rip’ command
Configure Serial0 using the ‘shutdown rip’ command
Configure an outbound route filter on Serial0 for RIP
14 Why will an EIGRP route get stuck in the Active state?

The EIGRP router on the far end of the link has crashed
The reply to a query caused by a change in a route takes too long and times out
The physical link between the two AS’s has gone down
The network is unstable and probably has a routing loop
15 What is the most effective way to reduce large routing tables?

Route filters
CIDR summary blocks
Compression
Switching
16 What OSPF command allows you to connect together two Area 0 regions on your network?

17 You need to create an IP Routing Protocol Filter for EIGRP network 198.30.64.0/23. What mask should be used to create the routing protocol filter?

0.0.1.255
0.0.254.255
255.255.1.0
255.255.254.0

18 What command will turn off automatic classful boundary summarization for EIGRP routes?

19 Which of the following best describes a Type 3 or 4 LSA?

Summary link entry which shows in routing tables as ‘IA for OSPF inter-area
Autonomous System External type-1 which shows in routing tables as ‘E1’ for OSPF External-1
Network link entry that shows in routing tables as ‘0’ for OSPF
Router link entry/record which show in routing tables as ‘0’ for OSPF

20 How long will OSPF wait (after receiving no updates) before sending a summary-update?

10 minutes
20 minutes
30 minutes
1 hour
21 By default, how does BGP handle IGP routes?

BGP automatically redistributes all IGP routes
BGP advertisements are independent of IGP route propagation
GBP must wait until the IGP has propagated routing information across the autonomous system
BGP can immediately advertise routes without waiting until the IGP has propagated information across the autonomous system
22 What methods does EIGRP use to determine if a previous neighbor is dead?

Unicast
Hold Time
Multicast
Broadcast
23 What command should be used to double the default EIGRP/IGRP count?

24 Select the valid subnet number and broadcast address combinations for mask /26:

Subnet 10.0.0.128, broadcast 10.0.0.192
Subnet 10.0.0.64, broadcast 10.0.0.127
Subnet 10.0.0.128, broadcast 10.0.0.191
Subnet 10.0.0.0, broadcast 10.255.255.255
25 Policy-Based routing has which of these criteria?

Can Deny based on subnet mask
Can Deny based on RIP version
Can Match based on the IP address
Can Match based on Next Hop address

26 Which of the following BGP Path Attributes (metrics) is a proprietary enhancement?

Community
Origin
Aggregator
Weight
27 What command will create an EIGRP route summary for 192.231.0.0/16 in AS #3?

28 Which of the following are needed for an OSPF to form an adjacency?

Authentication Type and Password
Autonomous System Number
Area ID
Hello and Dead intervals
Stub Area Flag

29 You router has the following routes: 10.1.4.0/24, 10.1.5.0/24, 10.1.6.0/24, 10.1.7.0/24. You want to summarize these via BGP so that only the summary route is advertised. What command will accomplish this?

30 Which of the following correctly describes an OSPF Area Border Router?

It is used to connect various OSPF Areas
It is used only at the outside edge of an OSPF network for protocol translation
It is used only internally for OSPF to EIGRP redistribution
It is used for routing protocol redistribution
31 What will the command ‘debug ip ospf adj’ help to accomplish?

LSA type 1
Elections
LSA type 3 and 4
OSPF neighbor relationships
32 What OSPF command on the Area Border Router will summarize all routes going into area 9 with a 0.0.0.0 default route?

33 What command will make OSPF area 9 a Stub Area?

34 When BGP routers with the same AS number exchange information, this is known as ____?

BGP
EBGP
IGRP
IBGP

35 Which of the following are characteristics of the BGP routing protocol?

Link-state protocol
Interior gateway protocol
Exterior gateway protocol
Distance-Vector protocol
36 Which of the following is untrue of routers running internal BGP?

Routers are running IBGP when two BGP speaking routers are in different AS’s
They must form a TCP port 179 connection with each other
They do not have to be directly connected
Routers are running IBGP when two BGP speaking routers are in the same AS
37 Which of the following are true of a network design with a high number of OSPF routers in a single area?

Increased problems with routing table ‘black holes’
Increased SPF algorithm re-calculation times
Decreased OSPF update traffic overhead
Increased OSPF update traffic overhead

38 What is included in an OSPF DBD/DDP?

SPF entries from the OSPF routing table
STP entries from the OSPF spanning tree
LSA entries from the OSPF master router’s link-state database
Database Description Packets

39 What command would be most useful for determining if there is an access-list applied to an interface?

40 Which of these values is required by EIGRP as a Seed Metric when performing Route Redistribution?

Bandwidth, Delay, Reliability, Load, MTU
Cost, Delay, Reliability
Route-Tag
Cost
41 By default OSPF will not allow the network address ‘0.0.0.0’ to be generated into the routing table in normal Areas. The ‘ip classless’ command tells Distance Vector routing protocols like RIP and IGRP to ignore the Class A/B/C rules and allow the default route ‘0.0.0.0’ network entry to be propagated. What corresponding OSPF command on the ASBR for a normal area will accomplish the same goal?

42 Which of the following are true regarding an OSPF internal router?

Internal routers are in more than one area
At least one interface is in Area 0
All interfaces are in the same Area
Internal routers redistribute routing information with routers in other areas

43 What is the inverted wildcard mask of /26?

63.255.255.255
0.0.0.63
192.255.255.255
0.0.0.192

44 You attempt to start an OSPF process on your router and receive: ‘Unable to allocate router ID.’ What could be the problem?

The OSPF area is Stubby
No IP address assigned to any interface
Router ID is used by another router
All interfaces are shut down

45 Which route types are passed by an OSPF ABR into a Totally Stubby Area?

Generate Type 3-4
Generate Type 5
Generate 0.0.0.0
Generate Type 1-2

46 Which of the following are true of Route Reflectors?

The reduce the size of the BGP table
They enable the use of Route Summarization
They reduce the number of TCP sessions
They modify Split Horizon

47 Among these methods of sending an IGP route into BGP, which is not recommended?

Redistribute the IGP into BGP
Use the network command with the ‘mask’ option
Redistribute BGP into the IGP
Use the network command without the ‘mask’ option

48 Which of the following are reasons a network administrator would choose to run multiple routing protocols at the same time on the same network?

Reduce routing protocol overhead on the network
Optimize the route redistribution between areas
Convert from an older routing protocol to a more modern one
Acquisition of a company running a different routing protocol than your own

49 When would you not use BGP?

Routing policy and route selection are not important for your AS
A single connection to the Internet
When you need to perform load-sharing to multiple ISP’s simultaneously
Low bandwidth between your AS and the other AS

50 What are some advantages of tunneling IPX through IP?

Saves IPX network address space
IP has more advanced routing protocols
Reduced SAP traffic
IP tunnels allow two IPX hosts to communicate over the public Internet
IP tunnels can overcome IPX scalability issues
51 What command will display all configured OSPF timers?

52 What command will confirm which interfaces are in what OSPF Areas and view all known adjacencies?

53 Using route summarization, which two of these networks fall into the 174.69.16.0/20 range?

174.69.33.0/24
174.69.31.0/24
174.69.17.0/24
174.69.32.0/24

54 What command will view EIGRP adjacencies?

55 Which of these are default BGP communities?

no-export
classless
Internet
no-advertised

56 Which of these are valid ways to route information sent from an AS into the BGP table?

Route Maps
Redistribution from an existing IGP
Network command
Redistribution from Static Route to Null 0

57 Which of these are the well-known Optional BGP Path Attributes?

Local preference
MED
Next-hop
Community

58 What command will list all OSPF ABR’s in the autonomous system?

59 Routers A, B, and C are running IBGP. Router B is connected via Serial 0, to router A, and connected via Serial 1 to router C. Router A advertises the route 200.1.1.0 to router B. By default what does router B do with this route?

Adds it to the BGP topology table
Adds it to the routing table
Advertises it to router A
Ignores the route

60 What command will reset all BGP TCP connections and all BGP sessions?
61 What command will enable route redistribution form IGRP AS #5 into OSPF using External metric type 1?

62 What command will determine what OSPF area all interfaces are in?

63 Which Administrative Distances listed below are correct?

BGP=20
Static Route=1
External EIGRO=170
EIGRP=120
Summary EIGRP=5

64 Which routing protocol features provide solutions to the problems associated with very large routing tables?

Filtering
Data Compression
Route summarization
Incremental updates

65 Variable Length Subnet Masking provides what benefit?

Eases the configuration of route distribution
Eliminates the problem of ‘black holes’ in the routing table
Provides a more efficient use of address space when subnetting
Provides full RIP v1 backwards compatibility

66 During OSPF convergence, at what state might the slave router request an LSU?

Full
Loading
Init
Exstart

67 What is the router command to diagnose and display the entire route, including delays, given the path to a destination?

routepath
routetrace
pathtrace
traceroute

68 You have built an EIGRP network. All routers within this network are using the same EIGRP AS number. You chose to add a static route on router Zaphoid. What will be the default administrative distance of this static route?

255
5
1
90

69 What command will view all EIGRP adjacency information?

70 What is a BGP community?

Routers that have different AS numbers
Routers that have the same AS number
A Cisco proprietary feature that optimizes routing updates
Group of destination which share some common property
71 Given the range of IP routes 192.168.8.0 through 192.168.15.255 for OSPF Area 1, assuming you are in the correct router-mode, what command will summarize all routes as a single route on the Autonomous System Boundary Router?

72 Before a rollout, you are trying to configure and deploy a large number of older OSPF routers in your enterprise lab environment. However, your batch file for configuring the routers is not working correctly. Which of these could be the cause of the problem?

The wildcard masks are incorrectly configured as subnet masks
The keyword ‘area’ should be removed from the second line
OSPF has been configured on a network for area 87
The keyword ‘area’ is missing from both ‘network’ statements

73 Which of these are effective ways to eliminate sub-optimal paths when configuring route redistribution?

Decrease the Administrative Distance of the sub-optimal path
Use route filtering on the sub-optimal path
Increase the Metric (or cost) of the sub-optimal path
Increase the Administrative Distance of the sub-optimal path

74 Which of these are the 2 most common BGP commands use to configure a Route Reflector?

bgp cluster-id [cluster-id]
neighbor [ip-address] route-reflector-host
route-reflect enable
neighbor [ip-address] route-reflector-client

75 Assuming your clients do not support subnet-zero, how many of your class C addresses are wasted by using the subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 and not using VLSM?

10%
25%
50%
75%

76 What OSPFcommand consolidates IA (intra-area) routes on an ABR?

77 Which of the following is true of an OSPF backbone router?

It redistributes routing information with routers in other areas
All backbone routers must be in more than one area
At least one interface is in Area 0
All interfaces are in the same Area

78 Which of these OSPF statements are correct?

OSPF computes cost based on the interface’s bandwidth setting
OSPF is not limited to a hop count metric
OSPF uses LSA packets instead of broadcasts
OSPF sends the complete routing table inside of each LSA packet

79 What is a BGP speaker?

A router that is running the BGP process and exchanging BGP routes
A router running BGP with passive interfaces
An EIGRP router redistributing BGP
A router that only listens to BGP routes

80 When OSPF neighbor commands be used?

When Standard Ethernet media is in place
To command old legacy hardware prior to OS version 10.0
When Token-Ring is implemented
When FDDI is implemented
81 What command is required to connect two physically separated Area 0’s?

82 You want to increase the chance that EIGRP will select serial 0 as the best path to a given route. What command will cause EIGRP to prefer this interface?

83 Which of these statements correctly describe Type 5 OSPF LSA?

Autonomous System External type-2, shows in routing table as ‘E2’ for OSPF External-2
Autonomous System External type-1, shows in routing table as ‘E1’ for OSPF External-1
Network link entry, shows in routing table as ‘0’ for OSPF
No such entry

84 Which of the following are possible reasons that EIGRP might not make an adjacency to a neighbor router?

Both routers are not running DUAL
Hop counts do not match on both routers
The feasible successor is still in the Hello state
Update packets have not been sent

85 How does the command ‘ip bandwidth-percent eigrp’ set EIGRP maximum bandwidth allocation?

On a per AS basis
On a per packet basis
On a per interface basis
Globally for all IGRP and EIGRP AS’s on the router

86 Which of these packet types does an OSPF router use at bootup to receive information?

SPF
LCP
Flood
Hello

87 What command will summarize Area 1 internal OSPF routes on an ABR for 192.231.0.0/16?

88 Which defined OSPF LSA types are Summary?

Generate Type 5
Generate 0.0.0.0
Generate Type 1-2
Generate Type 3-4

89 Which command is used for viewing the BGP topology table?

90 Which of the following are true of RIP v1?

Maximum hop count is 16
Update interval is 90 seconds
Update interval is 30 seconds
VLSM is not supported
Maximum hop count is 15
91 You are configuring a very simple IP network that won’t need an advanced routing protocol like BGP. What command will create the appropriate default route?

92 Which of the following supports multiple routed protocols?

IP
OSPF
BGP
EIGRP
IGRP

93 The existing DR is rebooted and the BDR is thus promoted to DR. Which of the following are true?

Upon boot of the old DR, the newly elected DR will automatically demote itself back to BDR
When the old DR comes back online, it will send out an LSA to override the new DR
The newly elected OSPF DR will remain DR even when the old DR comes back on-line
Upon boot of the old DR another election will occur

94 What command will display each OSPF area that is running on the router for OSPF process-id number 76?

95 What is the BGP MED used for?

Setting the route maps peer ID
Setting IGP synchronization
Setting the route reflectors peer ID
Setting a preferred return-pathway back into the originating AS

96 You are trying to deploy a large BGP network but notice that configuring BGP for full mesh will kill your router’s RAM and CPU. What can be configured to fix the problem?

Route Maps
Route Redistribution
Full Mesh neighbor statements
Route Reflectors

97 Which OSPF external metric type is additive (ie, includes all physical hops in cost calculation)?

Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Type 1

98 How many hosts do you get per subnet with a /30?

99 Which of the following is true regarding EIGRP feasible successors?

It is a backup router elected during convergence
It is a backup route kept in the topology database
It is a backup link kept in the routing table
It is a special DDR feature for EIGRP compatibility

100 Which of the following is true of BGP multihoming?

It is the routing between two BGP speakers
It is the enabling of BGP on more than one interface
It is the use of BGP route redistribution
It is the connection an AS to more than one ISP

1.Which of the following are true of unicast IP?

It consumes resources in a network in proportion to the number of hosts served
It can be either TCP or UDP
It uses a class D address
A server transmitting unicast IP does not need to ‘know’ the recipient’s address

2.Which of the following are true of remote services?

They are centralized and therefore require transport across the backbone to reach the user
They are common to all users
They are on a different VLAN than the user
They are typically connected to the user via a layer 2 switching path

3.Which of the following is a form of out-of-band management?

Web-based management
Console port
LAT
TELNET

4.Spanning tree protocols puts a port in one of 5 states. Which of the following is true of the forwarding state?

No frames are forwarded. BPDU’s are heard.
No frames are forwarded. No BPDU’s are heard.
No frames are forwarded. Learning Addresses.
Frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.

5.What security measures does Cisco suggest in the access layer of their recommended campus architecture?

Route filtering
Cisco recommends no security measures in the access layer
Device security such as passwords
Port security

6.Telnet access directly to a switch or router command uses what facility?

slip
server
async port
line

7.What mechanism can be used to prevent ‘rogue’ HSRP routers from asserting high priorities and becoming the active router?

MD5 authentication may be used in HSRP messages
Plain text authentication may be used in HSRP messages
The command ‘standby (group_number) access-group (access_list)’ is used to specify the routers that may participate in an HSRP group
Each HSRP router is explicitly configured with the address of the other routers in the group using the command ‘standby (group_number) (group_member_address)

8.What command will set duplex mode on a set based switch to half?

9.Which of the following are true of a LAN segmented with layer 2 switches?

Path determination is based on OSI reference model Layer2 information
Path determination is based on OSI reference model Layer3 information
Path determination is based on OSI reference model Layer4 information
It supports multiple high-speed data exchanges

10.What will a Catalyst switch do with a multicast (in default configuration)?

Learn the correct destinations
Flood the multicast frames out each port within the VLAN on which it is received
Query the IGMP designated router
Query the domain to determine multicast group membership

11.Which of the following have a command line interface like the Cisco router IOS?

Catalyst 29xx XL
Catalyst 2826G
Catalyst 6xxx
Catalyst 1900/1912

12 What command will show all MLS cache entries for frames sent to IP address 208.67.77.3?

13 Which of the following are true of CGMP?

It is enabled on the router using the ‘ip cgmp’ command
It is enabled in interface mode
The version of IGMP being run is transparent to the switch
It is enabled globally on the router

14 Which of the following are true of MLS caching?

Cache entries for flows are aged out by a timer that can only be set in 8 second increments
Cache entries for flows age out in 5 minutes by default
MLS cache entries are purged if the RP routing table changes
Candidate cache entries are aged out in 3 seconds by default

15 Which of the following is true regarding enabling IP routing on an RSM?

The command ‘network (ip_address)’ is entered during interface configuration to enable dynamic routing
A dynamic routing protocol is needed to route
The command ‘router (routing_protocol)’ is used to start a dynamic routing protocol
IP routing must be turned on with the command ‘router ip’

16 The root switch in a spanning tree is chosen by an 8 byte field that has which of these formats?

The 8 byte field is a concatenation of the switch supervisor’s MAC address followed by a 2 byte configurable value. The lowest value wins.
The 8 byte field is a concatenation of a configurable 2 byte value followed by switch supervisor MAC address. The lowest value wins.
The 8 byte field is a concatenation of a configurable 2 byte value followed by switch supervisor MAC address. The highest value wins.
The 8 byte field is a concatenation of the switch supervisor’s MAC address followed by a 2 byte configurable value. The highest value wins.

17 Which of the following are true of full-duplex ethernet?

There is a significant performance increase over half-duplex ethernet
More collisions
If one host is transmitting, the other must wait for it to finish
No collisions
Clients must have a full-duplex compatible ethernet card

18 What ‘set based’ command can be used to assign network addresses and subnet masks for in-band management interfaces?

set net ip
set address
set interface
set network

19 Which of the following are true of gigabit ether?

1000BaseT uses 2 pairs
1000BaseCX operates over UTP copper
1000BaseT operates over Cat5 UTP
1000Base SX operates over multi mode fiber

20 Which of the following are true of the Cisco Catalyst 8500 switch series?

The 8500 is suitable for very high density access layer closets
The 8500 supports wire speed multicast forwarding
The 8500 is suitable for use in a high speed core
The 8500 is recommended for multilayer switching in the distribution layer
21 Which of the following are characteristics of the access layer in Cisco’s recommended campus architecture?

high port density
optimized for high speed transport
security
layer 2 filtering

22 What is indicated by an ethernet link state light?

The port is operational
There is no such light
A link state routing protocol is operational
The port is active and can hear a link pulse from a connected port

23 Which of the following protocols can use multicast for inter-router communication?

RIP2
OSPF
DVMRP
RIP
BGP

24 Which of the following are improvements that might be expected from segmenting a flat layer 2 network into VLANs?

Reduced broadcasts at each host
Increased bandwidth between any two points in the network
Reduced maintenance by the network administrator
Possibility to introduce layer ? security between users and resources

25 What command will enable PIM and for each group will set the router to sparse mode if there is a defined RP and dense mode if there is no defined RP?

26 What command will show the ports assigned to each VLAN?

27 Which of the following exchange IGMP messages?

The server that is sending the multicast
The router that is layer 3 forwarding the multicast to a LAN or VLAN where it is being received by multicast capable workstations
A host that is receiving the multicast
A host on a LAN or VLAN that is carrying a multicast

28 Which of the following are true of TFTP?

It can be used for storing and retrieving system images across a network
It can be used for remote command line access to a switch
It can be used for storing and retrieving configuration files across a network
It is inherently insecure because no password is required

29 In multi-level switching (MLS) with an external router, how does the switch know the MAC address to which the first frame is delivered?

The switch knows the address through the multi-layer switching protocol
The host must be configured with this address (default gateway)
The switch must be configured with this MAC
None of the above

30 What command will verify connectivity to remote host 105.77.27.3?

31 What command enables Auto RP advertisements sourced from the first loopback address?

32 Which of the following are true of CGMP?

IGMP snooping is disabled if CGMP is on
Without CGMP a switch must flood multicasts out every port
CGMP messages from a router are multicast through a network of Catalyst switches
CGMP is an open standard

33 Which of the following are true of Per VLAN Spanning Tree?

ISL supports Per VLAN Spanning Tree
Per VLAN Spanning Tree only works on Cisco5xxx with software 4.1 or better
A significant advantage of PVST in a large campus network is that the choice of the root bridge can be optimized for each VLAN
ISL trunking requires Common Spanning Tree
34 What is a virtual LAN?

A routed internet
A shared physical media
A group of ports in the same broadcast domain
A shared collision domain
35 Which of the following is true of multicast?

A router carrying a multicast group is also a member of the group by default
A ping to a multicast group address should be answered only by the designated querier
All routers that are members of a multicast group should respond to a ping
A traceroute to a group address will show the path to the RP
36 How should enterprise servers be connected in the Cisco campus architecture (choose 2)?

To the access layer
Directly to a core level switch
Via an enterprise server distribution level switch
To each switch block via dedicated trunk or virtual cicruit

37 Which of the following are true of multicast routing protocols?

Cisco routers can support MOSPF
RPF is used in both source tree and shared tree topologies
Sparse mode topologies are built based on explicit join messages from subscribers
Cisco routers cannot run DVMRP but can interoperate with it

38 Which of the following is true of MLS management interfaces?

Cisco recommends only one management interface per RP
An MLS management interface is an RP interface that sends MLSP messages
The global command for configuring a management interface is ‘mls rp management-interface (interface)’
If an RP must serve multiple switches, the RP must be directly connected to each

39 Which of the following are true of statically configured PIM rendezvous points (RPs)?

Leaf routers are configured with the address of an RP
A group can have only one RP
RPs are only required in sparse mode
The command to configure a router as an RP is a global command

40 Which of the following are true of Uplink Fast?

It can be configured per VLAN
The recommended use for Uplink Fast is to allow fast reconfiguration of an access switch that is connected to two distribution layer switches
If a trunk connecting a switch tot he core fails, Uplink Fast can restore connectivity through a different trunk in microseconds
Uplink Fast cannot be used on distribution or core switches

41 Match the command with the platform:

A―time-out 120

B―exec-timeout 120

C―set logout 120

42 What command is used to shut down a command line interface to a set based switch?

43 Which of the following is true about the MaxAge timer?

It is always 10 times the BPDU Hello time
It is the maximum age of a MAC address in the address cache
It defaults to 20 seconds
It can be set on any switch

44 What is Cisco’s recommendation about using autonegotiation for ethernet speed and duplex setting?

Not recommended―implementation differences in devices can lead to poor performance
Recommended when possible
Cisco has no recommendation

45 A network is built using the Cisco campus architecture and MLS. One of the access layer switches carries users on VLANs A, B, and C. Assume that usres on VLAN A should have connectivity to VLAN B and C. There should be no connectivity between VLANs B and C. Which flow mask should be used in the MLS-enabled switch?

A destination-IP mask should be used
A source-destination-ip flow mask should be used
An IP-flow mask should be used

46 Which of these is true about port priority?

To select a path to the root bridge a switch chooses the port with the lowest cost path to the root bridge. Ties go the port with the lowest port ID
The maximum port priority value is 255
The highest priority port always becomes the designated port
The command for setting priority on a set based switch is ‘set portcost’

47 Which of the following is true of ‘Port Fast’?

It supports gigabit ether trunks on 10 MB/s VLANs
It is a mechanism for grouping trunks with only one of them active
It is a mechanism for bonding trunks together for faster uplinks
It streamlines spanning tree initialization of a port

48 Which of the following is true of MLS-SE?

A flow, consisting of a conversation between two IP/Port number pairs, occupies a single MLS-SE’s MLS cache entry
If the MLS-SE receives a frame that is not part of a flow recorded in the MLS cache, it forwards the frame to the RP and does nothing else unless the RP forwards the frame back to it
The MLS-SE writes MLS cache entries based on a comparison of cache entries for candidate frames forwarded to the RP and frames received from the RP
When the RP forwards the frame it also sends forwarding information to the MLS-SE using the MLSP. This information is used to write an MLS cache entry
49 What are the differences between a layer 3 switch and a router?

A router uses ASICs for forwarding packets
Switches typically have lower latency
Routers are typically less expensive per port
They perform exactly the same functions
50 In multi-level switching (MLS) with an external router, when does the switch rewrite the destination host’s IP address?

In every frame
In a traditional network, layer 2, 3, and 4 devices do not rewrite IP addresses
After the first frame has been sent and the switch has a cache entry for the flow

51 Which of the following are true of Multi Layer Switching?

The MLSP hello interval is 15 seconds
The MLSP messages propagate only between an adjacent switch and RP and not throughout a network
Each SE has a globally unique XTAG
The MLS-RP sends data to the MLS-SE that is stored by the MLS-SE as a cache entry

52 What command shows the cards in each slot of a modular Catalyst switch?

53 Spanning tree protocol puts a port in one of 5 states. Which of the following is true of the learning state?

Frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
No frames are forwarded. BPDU’s are heard.
No frames are forwarded. No BPDU’s are heard.
No frames forwarded. Learning addreses

54 What character is used to indicate the beginning and end of a banner message?

//
Any character may be used, so long as it is the same at the beginning and end and does not appear in the middle
No delimiter is required

55 What command will make a VTP client in VTP domain ‘corp’?

56 What command enables the Cisco Group Management Protocol?

57 Which of the following are true?

The ‘set based’ command for setting the cost of port 6, module 3 to 30 is ‘set portcost 3/6 30’
In most cases, the best way to optimize network topology is through optimal root bridge selection
The ‘IOS based’ command for setting port cost is ‘cost (cost_value)’
The show spantree command shows the cost of each port

58 The Catalyst 6xxx family of switches is suitable for which part(s) of Cisco’s campus architecture?

Distribution layer
Core
Access layer
59 Why is MLS switching faster than pure layer three routing?

MLS does not rewrite the layer 3 packet header
Almost all routers implement substantial functionality in software, while layer 2 switches’ designs do not have a CPU in the switching path
Layer two operations are inherently faster
Fewer devices must be traversed in the network

60 In which layers of the Cisco Campus architecture is gigabit ethernet recommended?

Distribution layer
Access layer
Core 61 Which of these methods of managing a device are ‘in-band’?

telnet
switch or router internal HTTP management server
access to the console port via a colocated terminal server
SNMP

62 What is indicated by an IP address of 0.0.0.0 for the RP in a multicast routing table display?

The router with an mroute table entry that shows an RP at 0.0.0 for a specific group is in fact the RP for that group
Instead of using a specific address for the RP, the router forwards packets towards the RP by using its default route
RP selection is pending
The tree is source-based and no RP will be defined
63 Which of the following is true of the core layer in Cisco’s campus architecture?

Area aggregation
Conversation Matched Queuing
Layer ? security
Optimized for high speed connectivity
64 The STP timer defaults assume a Hello time of two seconds and a network diameter of seven. Which of these are true?

It is much easier and safer to configure timers for the network diameter using the ‘set spantree root [dia (diameter)] command instead of manually setting each one
Timer values cannot be adjusted
Timer values are a compromise of actual experience and are nearly optimal in all situations
The timers should be adjusted for networks with diameters not equal to seven
65 Which of the following are true of the ‘show mls’ command?

It can be used on a switch to show which RPs are supporting it
It can be used on a switch to show the MLS cache entries
It can be used on an RP to show the cache MLS cache entries it has written to the MLS-SE
It can be used on an RP to show which switches an RP is supporting
66 What command logs HSRP messages to the console?

67 Which of these are valid methods for setting login passwords?

TACACS configuration of username and password pairs can establish a login password
Configuration and dissemination via VTP can establish a login password
Local configuration can establish a password that anyone may use
NIS configuration of usernames and passwords can establish a login password
68 Which of the following correctly associates fast ethernet physical layer standards with the maximum allowable distances between a host and a switch?

100m for Cat5 UTP
25m for Cat3 UTP
2km for multi-mode fiber
100m for Cat4 UTP

69 Which of these would limit the performance of very large VLANs?

An excessive number of broadcasts received at hosts
Difficulty in scaling spanning tree to networks with diameter greater than 7
Excessive number of collisions degrades the throughput of media
Large networks place an excessive burden on layer 3 devices that provide connectivity to other VLANs and networks

70 Which of these is true of PortFast?

As an alternative to PortFast, spanning tree can be disabled on ports that connect a single host
PortFast should only be used on ports that connect a single host to the network
PortFast may be used on trunks if the trunk connects a switch that is not connected to any other switches
71 Which pair of commands would turn on an internal http server for switch configuration and restrict access to a username and password configured on a central security server?

ip http server

ip http authentication tacacs

72 What two ways can be used to provide access to a Route Switch Module command line (assuming the RSM is installed in slot 6)?

Connect a terminal (emulator) to the RSM console port
Use the command ‘session 6’ from the switch command line
Use the command ‘connect 6’ from the switch command line
Use the command ‘telnet 6’ from the switch command line
73 Which Catalyst ‘set based’ command is used to verify a configuration?

plot
init C6
show
verify
74 Which of the following would cause a router interface to be placed in an ‘oilist’?

IP multicast has been explicitly enabled and a host connected by the interface has used IGMP to join a group
The interface was manually configured to join a group
The interface becomes an ‘operational interace’ that becomes administratively up with a good line protocol
A PIM neighbor was heard on the interface. IP multicast has not been explicitly enabled or disabled on this router
75 Which of the following are true of Common or Mono Spanning Tree?

In a large campus, CST will probably have longer convergence times than Per VLAN Spanning Tree
802.1Q trunking requires CST
ISL trunking requires CST
Per VLAN Spanning Tree can support manual load balancing
76 What effect will the command ‘clear mls entry source 10.20.120.67’ have?

Remove support from an RP at 10.20.120.67
Clear all MLS cache entries for frames originated by a host at 172.16.1.1
This is not a legal command
Clear all MLS cache entries learned from frames forwarded by an RP at 10.20.120.67
77 What command would be used on a Catalyst 2900XL switch to configure a description of a port that will be shown when the port status is shown?

78 Which of the following can a command line user perform in privileged mode, but not user mode?

View the device configuration
Telnet to a remote host
View the ip routing table
Change the user mode password

79 Assume HSRP is configured on routers A and B with priorities of 300 and 150 respectively. Assume defaults for all other configurable values. Router A becomes the active router, but subsequently reboots and B becomes the active router. When router A comes back up, which of the following will occur?

Router B remains the active router until it becomes unavailable, at which time Router A becomes the active router
Router B issues a ‘release’ message and becomes secondary
Router A issues a ‘coup’ message and becomes active
Router B issues a ‘resign’ message and becomes secondary

80 In what two situations is the ‘mls set enable’ command needed on a set-based switch?

On an external RP only if mls is explicitly disabled
On an internal RP only if mls is explicitly disabled
Always, whenever an external RP is used
Never
81 Which of the following are true of ethernet (10 mb/s), fast ethernet (100 mb/s), and gigabit ethernet (1000mb/s)?

All can operate up to 100m over CAT5 unshielded twisted pair copper
All use the same MAC layer
All use the same physical layer (layer 1)
All can operate in half or full duplex modes

82 What is the function of the VLAN Trunk Protocol?

To manage which VLANs will be carried on trunks interconnecting a group of switches
To encapsulate frames so that their VLAN association is retained when they pass over a trunk
To manage the appearance of each VLAN on each port in a group of switches
To negotiate whether the link between two adjacent switches will be a trunk

83 Which of the following are true of configuring MLS and VTP?

The VTP domain MUST be configured on the RP before starting MLS on the interface/sub-interface
The domain must be specified on every sub-interface on the RP that participates in MLS
The switch and RP can be in different domains as long as the same VLANs are defined in each
The VTP domain is configured for all sub-interfaces when enabled at the interface level (assuming ISL trunking)

84 Which of the following are true of spanning tree protocols?

Source tree protocols are more likely to spread traffic load widely
The path between source and destination is almost always direct in a source tree
No topology change is needed if the direction of flow reverses in a source tree
Source trees can be used by dense mode protocols

85 What command will enable multicast routing on an interface?

86 What switch command will show if the switch is acting as a server, a client, or is transparent to the protocol enabled?

87 What is ‘uplink fast’?

It provides support for gigabit ether trunks on 10 MB/s VLANs
It is a mechanism for bonding trunks together for faster uplinks
It streamlines spanning tree initialization of a port
It is a mechanism for grouping links with only one of them active. The spanning tree sees the group as one link
88 Which of these technologies are supported by Cisco ISL?

Serial
Token Ring
CDDI
Ethernet
Fast Ethernet

89 Which of the following are true of reserved class D addresses?

224.0.0.0 /24 is reserved for multicasts that are not propagated out of a broadcast domain
224.1.0.0 /24 is used for multicast protocols that must span an entire multicast domain
239.0.0.0 /8 is private space analogous to 10.0.0.0 /8
241.0.0.0 /24 is reserved for inter-domain multicast protocols

90 What command will set duplex mode to ‘full’ on a switch that has an IOS-like command line interface?
91 At what privilege level can a user execute any command?

0
1
5
10
92 What command, when used on a Catalyst 4xxx/5xxx/6xxx switch, will configure a description of a port that will be shown when the port status is down. Configure it for port 10, module 2 and assign ‘central’ as the description?

93 Which of the following is true of VTP modes?

Adding a server to a domain with a high configuration revision number stored in non-volatile memory can alter or delete VLANs
If VTP is enabled but the mode not specified the switch will be transparent
VLANs may be created on VTP clients but they won’t propagate to any other switch
A VTP v2 server can support a vl client but v1 servers will not operate with v2 clients
94 What command will show all MLS cache entries learned from frames routed by the RP at IIP address 18.64.202.1?

95 What command will age out cache entries for flows of 3 frames or fewer in 32 second?

96 The proprietary Cisco Group Management Protocol works with which of these protocol suites?

IPX
TCP/IP
XNS
AppleTalk
97 Where must IP multicast be enabled in a router configuration (select two)?

It is enabled by default and there is no need to include it in a configuration
It is enabled in a separate router config mode (router pim)
It must be enabled globally
It must be enabled on each interface on which multicast traffic will be received or sent
98 Which of the following are true of EtherChannel?

All ports in a trunk must carry the same VLAN or be trunks that carry the same VLANs
The Port Aggregation Protocol must be used to bundle ports
Spanning tree treats a channel as a single link
An Etherchannel is automatically a trunk
99 Which of the following are a good reason to choose a switch to become the spanning tree root?

The root switch should close to a VLAN’s default router to reduce load on interswitch links
The root switch should be the one with the lightest processor load
The root switch should be at or near the center of the VLAN so that overall performance is maximized
It is rarely necessary and not generally recommended to influence the automatic root selection process

100 What command will enable spanning tree on port 2, module 4?

1 What is the port configuration on a Cisco 1603 router?

1 Ethernet, serial port
1 Ethernet and 1 synchronous 56 Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
1 Ethernet and 1 BRI S/T port
1 Ethernet, 1 FDDI, and 1 BRI U port

2 What is the total bandwidth available on an ISDN BRI circuit?

256 Kbps
64 Kbps
128 Kbps
56 Kbps

3 What command will show the modem configured on a line?

4 What command set should be used to correctly configure a US Robotics modem with a known modem string on a Cisco access server?

5 How many B channels are available in an ISDN BRI circuit?

1
2
3
4

6 Which of the following points is the boundary for Non-US ISDN circuits?

T
R
S
U

7 What command will set up a static route from 172.21.3.0 to 172.21.100.0 given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a gateway address of 172.21.3.1?

8 What command is used to enable the predictor compression algorithm on an interface?

9 Which of the following ISDN channels controls call setup, signaling and call termination?

D
A
B
C

10 How many slots for network modules or WAN Interface cards are available on a Cisco 3640 router?

1
2
3
4
11 What is a DCE?

Data Circuit-Terminating Equipment
Digital Circuit Equipment
Data Circuit Endpoint
Digital Circuit-Terminating Endpoint

12 What command will establish a reverse telnet connection to the modem on line 3?

13 What command sets up a backup interface?

14 Which of the following terminal services are provided by Cisco RAS?

Telnet/rlogin
X.25 PAD
LAT
TN3270
PAP Authentication

15 What command enables ppp encapsulation?

16 What command will enable Multilink PPP on an interface?

17 Which of the following are permanent profiles provided by the Cisco 700 Series router?

Standard
External
Internal
LAN

18 Which of the following is used to describe the process of Cisco NAT using a single IP address to represent multiple workstations?

Proxy translation
Masquerading
IP overloading
Overloading*

19 Which feature provides the capability for links to terminate at multiple routers with different remote addresses?

Fast Etherchannel
Multilink ppp
ISL
Multichassis Multilink PPP

20 What command will establish a terminal session with an IBM host via TN3270 (2)?

21What is the line number of the CON port?

0
1
2
Last TTY line number plus 1

22 What command will enable Dial-on-Demand routing on an asynchronous interface?

  1. Which of the following is true of Frame Relay DLCI?

It is a frame sent from the Frame-Relay switch to the destination router when network congestion is detected
It is the frame sent from the Frame-Relay network to a router when the network is congested
It is the rate at which a Frame-Relay switch agrees to transfer data
It is the logical virtual circuit between Customer Equipment and the Frame-Relay network

24 When should modem auto-configuration be used?

To be able to configure a modem without sending modem configuration commands
To allow modem configuration commands to be sent through a terminal emulator
To configure modem devices that are not currently supported by Cisco
To allow for the auto-discover of modems
25 What command should be used to change TN3270 directives into dumb terminal commands?

ttyhat
keymap
ansi.sys
ttycap*

26 What WICs does the Cisco 1602 router support?

Serial
ISDN BRI S/T, ISDN BRI U, and serial
ISDN BRI S/T, and serial
ISDN BRI U

27 What portion of a dialer profile is responsible for all the configuration parameters associated with a particular destination?

dialer interface
dialer manager
dialer map class
dialer pool

28 Which of the following ISDN elements represents the ISDN terminal equipment?

NT2
TE1
LE
NT1

29 What command should be used to specify that the serial line is connected by a non-V.25bis modem using EIA signaling only. Specifically, the DTR signal?

dialer string
dialer v.25
dialer in-band
dialer dtr

30 What command is used to enable incoming network connection to asynchronous ports?

31 What is the total bandwidth available on a European ISDN PRI circuit?

1.544 Mbps
2.048 Mbps
4 Kbps
128 Kbps

32 What command will display 12f protocol errors?

33 Which remote access method allows a user to take direct control of a workstation through a dialup line?

Remote Virtual Connections
Remote-Gateway
Remote-Node
Remote-Control

34 What command will display information on both B channels of BRI interface 2?

35 Which of the following is an example of Cisco protocol translation?

translate ip 172.21.3.4 lat x25 123555222
translate ip lat 172.21.3.4 vax11
translate ip lat 172.21.3.4 x25 1235552222
translate tcp 172.21.3.4 x25 1235552222

36 Which of the following is true of the ISDN S/T reference point?

RS-232 connector using pins 2,3,6,20
RJ-45 connector using pins 3,4,5,6
RJ-45 connector using pins 1,2,7,8
V.35 connector using pins 2,3,6,20

37 What is the purpose of implementing a UART?

isdn framing
store configuration
asynchronous port controller
synchronous clocking

38 Which of the following memory types is used to hold the router IOS image?

ROM
Flash
RAM
NVRAM

39 Which of the following routers supports a BRI connection and would be appropriate for a single user or a small office?

Cisco 200
Cisco 700
Cisco 900
Cisco 1000
Cisco 1600

40 What command defines the global default pooling mechanism used to supply IP addresses?

41 Which of these points is between the NT1 and LE?

R
U
S
T

42 A ______ could be configured to avoid dialing caused by routing updates on a DDR interface.

dynamic route
static route
link state routing protocol
route slowdown
43 What command will allow asynchronous protocol features on VTY lines?

  1. What IOS feature allows the increase in the interval for routing protocol updates?

RIP
RTMP
Snapshot routing
IGRP

45 Which type of line on access servers is typically used to log into the server for configuration purposes?

CON
TTY
VTY
AUX

46 What command troubleshoots VPDN operation?

47 What command will create a static route from IPX network 30 to IPX network 50 through the router interface 50.0000.0c07.00c2?

48 Which of the following dialer objects is a group of one or more physical interfaces associated with a specific Dialer Profile?

Physical Interface
Dialer Map-Class
Dialer Interface
Dialer Pool

49 Which of the following ISDN channels would be used for HDLC and PPP?

C
B
D
A

50 What command sends logging information to a UNIX syslog server?

51 What command is used to set the line code type on an ISDN PRI interface?

52 What are the two types of authentication most commonly used with PPP?

CHAP
RC4
L2F
PAP

53 What command would configure your router to bring up an additional interface when the load on the DDR interface exceeds 50% in either direction?

54 What is the term for an ordered pool of physical interfaces used by a dialer profile?

dialer interface
dialer manager
dialer pool
dialer map class

55 What command configures a router to accept On-Demand Routing routes from stub routers?

  1. Which of the following points is between the NT1 and NT2 device?

T
R
S
U

57 What command verifies Auto Configuration operations?

  1. Which of the following memory types is used to hold power-up diagnostics and bootstrap program?

ROM
Flash
NVRAM
RAM

59 What bandwidth is available with V.32 bis without compression?

14.4 Kbps
28.8 Kbps
33.6 Kbps
1200 bps

60 What command, when executed on a Cisco access server, will verify the controller for your channelized T1 is running and no alarms have been reported?

61 What commands will display information about open LAT, Telnet, or rlogin connections?

62 What command will configure a local pool of IP addresses?

63 What is the port configuration of a Cisco 1602 router?

1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI S/T port
1 Ethernet, serial port
1 Ethernet, and 1 synchronous 56 Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
1 Ethernet, 1 FDDI, and 1 BRI U port

64 Which of these services are provided by Cisco NAT?

Tcp load distribution
Domain name lookup
Address resolution
Static address translation

65 Which of these dialer objects contains information specific to the call setup?

Dialer Interface
Dialer Map-Class
Physical Interface
Dialer Pool

66 What is the total bandwidth available on an ISDN BRI circuit including D channels?

56 Kbps
64 Kbps
128 Kbps
144 Kbps

67 How many ISDN D channels are available in a European ISDN PRI circuit?

1
2
3
4

68 Which of these ISDN elements represents the customer premises switching equipment?

TE1
NT1
NT2
LE

69 What command sets a low speed interface to asynchronous mode?

  1. Which of these commands is similar to the ‘show sessions’ command?

where
show lines
show buffers
show interfaces
61 What commands will display information about open LAT, Telnet, or rlogin connections?

62 What command will configure a local pool of IP addresses?

63 What is the port configuration of a Cisco 1602 router?

1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI S/T port
1 Ethernet, serial port
1 Ethernet, and 1 synchronous 56 Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
1 Ethernet, 1 FDDI, and 1 BRI U port

64 Which of these services are provided by Cisco NAT?

Tcp load distribution
Domain name lookup
Address resolution
Static address translation

65 Which of these dialer objects contains information specific to the call setup?

Dialer Interface
Dialer Map-Class
Physical Interface
Dialer Pool

66 What is the total bandwidth available on an ISDN BRI circuit including D channels?

56 Kbps
64 Kbps
128 Kbps
144 Kbps

67 How many ISDN D channels are available in a European ISDN PRI circuit?

1
2
3
4

68 Which of these ISDN elements represents the customer premises switching equipment?

TE1
NT1
NT2
LE

69 What command sets a low speed interface to asynchronous mode?

  1. Which of these commands is similar to the ‘show sessions’ command?

where
show lines
show buffers
show interfaces
71 How do you configure Windows 95 to connect as a remote dial-up client?

Select My Computer, then select Make New Connection
Select Install TCP/IP, then select create PPP connectivity
Select My Computer, then select Dialup Networking, then select Make New Connection
Select Network Neighborhood, then select Dialup Networking, then select Make New Connection

72 Which of the following are Cisco Access Services?

Remote-Node Services
Protocol Translation Services
Asynchronous Routing Services
Remote Control Services
Terminal Services

73 What key sequence will switch between sessions if multiple connections are established from a router to a remote host via telnet?

74 What WICs does the Cisco 1601 router support?

ISDN BRI S/T, and serial
ISDN BRI U
ISDN BRI S/T, ISDN BRI U, and serial
Serial

75 What are the two primary differences between Dial on Demand Routing and Dial Backup?

Dial Backup is used when a primary link goes down
Dial on Demand only works with PPP
Dial on Demand routing is only used when interesting traffic is received on the interface
Dial backup uses interesting traffic to determine when a line goes down

76 Which of the following are ISDN switch types used in North America?

basic-net3
basic-nil
basic-5e22
basic-dms100

77 Which type of line on access servers is the same as an asynchronous interface and is typically used for remote-node dial-in sessions?

AUX
VTY
CON
TTY

78 What command will create a pool of internal IP addresses to be used by Cisco NAT?

79 What command should be entered to diagnose an integrated modem that may not be functioning properly?

80 Which parameter can be used with a static routing configuration that specifies a route will not be removed, even if an interface shuts down?

sticky
static
nonvolatile
permanent 81 Which of these dialer objects are components of a dialer profile?

interface map
dialer interface
dialer map class
dialer pool

82 What command will execute a menu named ‘file’ when user Elvis logs in?

83 When the NAT Overloading feature is implemented, one inside global address represents multiple inside local addresses. How is this feature implemented?

TCP port numbers are modified
Internal addresses are incremented one per user
IP address routing tables are modified
The QOS field is modified

84 Which of these compressions standards are supported by Cisco IOS Release 10.3?

Stac
Zip
V.32bis
Predictor

85 Which dialup networking protocols are supported by Windows 95?

RAS
PPP
Novell NetWare Connect
SNA
SLIP

86 Which of these points is the boundary for US ISDN circuits?

T
R
U
S

87 What is the purpose of DHCP?

Resolve the MAC address into an IP address
Dynamically boot computers from the network
Dynamically assign a MAC address to computers
Dynamically assign an IP address to computers

88 What command displays events that are part of NORMAL tunnel establishment or shutdown in VPDN?

89 What command would be used to reset the NAT translations from the translation table?

90 What command is used to configure SPID numbers on a router?

91 Which of the following are types of remote access to network resources?

Remote Virtual Connections
Remote-Gateway
Remote-Control
Remote-Node

92 What command will apply a single interface configuration to multiple interfaces?

93 What command is used to set the terminal baud rate on async lines?

94 Which of the following is true of Frame Relay FECN and/or BECN?

Logical virtual circuit between Customer Equipment and Frame-Relay network
Frame sent from the Frame-Relay network to a router when the network is congested
The rate at which a Frame-Relay switch agrees to transfer data
Signaling between Customer Equipment and Frame-Relay network responsible for connection management and maintaining status

95 What command string is used to load factory settings on a modem?

AT
AT&M0
AT&F
AT&D

96 Which of the following services does Cisco Access Server provide

Serves as a protocol translator
Servers as a switch
Servers as a router
Serves as a terminal server

97 What command is used to look at system statistics for all modems installed in an access server?

98 What is the critical advantage of using CHAP instead of PAP authentication?

PAP is not supported for PPP authentication
PAP will disconnect if authentication fails
PAP sends passwords in clear text format
Less packets are transmitted to complete authentication when using CHAP

99 How many slots for network modules or WAN Interface cards are available on a Cisco 3620 router?

1
2
3
4

100 What effect does the command ‘ppp authentication chap pap callin’ have?

This is not a valid command
Authentication will be performed for inbound and outbound connections
Enables both CHAP and PAP―CHAP authentication is performed before PAP
Enables both CHAP and PAP―PAP authentication is performed before CHAP

1 Choose two enhancements that FDDI provides over Token Ring

Faster speeds*
Fault isolation
Dual Rings*
155 Mbps speed
2 Short-term statistics can be used to help do which of the following for the network administrator?

Provide a history of network growth
Plan for the future expansion requirements of the network
Expose areas of potential network problems*
Evaluate immediate network changes required*
3 What command displays a detailed device status report?

4 What does ping stand for?

5 Which switching is required so that all packets are processed by the debug commands?

process*
optimum
autonomous
fast

6 What command is used to display the IP interface configuration?

7 What does the output of the command ‘ipconfig /all’ display?

All Layer 3 information
IP information for all interfaces, including IP address, subnet mask, DNS server, DHCP, and some NetBIOS information*
IP address and subnet mask only
None of the above

8 Which of these is an online tool for Cisco case management?

CCO Case Manager
Case Management Toolkit*
CCO Tac Manager
None of the above

9 Which of these commands will determine whether or not an access list has been applied to an interface anywhere between the host and the destination IP address restricting the ICMP protocol?

debug ip icmp*
debug ip routing
debug ip eigrp
debug arp

10 Which of these Internet protocols can hosts use to discover all locally attached router addresses?

IRDP*
IGMP
UDP 11 After logging into a router, which of these commands will indicate which interfaces are running OSPF?

show ip interfaces
show ip protocols
show ip ospf interfaces*
show ip arp

12 An administrator adds a VLAN to Switch A, which is connected to Switch B and C. Which of the folloing is true about the VLAN?

It will need to be added manually to each switch in the network
It will automatically be added to each switch in the subnet
It will automatically be added to each switch in the VTP domain*
It will need to be added manually to each switch in the network that participates in the VLAN, but no others

13 Which of the following protocols provides routing for AppleTalk?

ATP
ZIP
AARP
RTMP*

14 Which of these commands will display VLAN information?

show port
show vlans*
show VLAN cdp
show vtp domain

15 Which of these commands will invoke a core dump from the command line?

show core
dump core
write core*
write net

16 Which of these is a GUI-based management interface for Cisco switches?

Cisco Resource Manager Essentials
Netsys Baseliner
TrafficDirector
VlanDirector*

17 Which command should be performed on a router so that its data can be submitted to the TAC during the submission of a case?

show support
show version
show tech-support*
show protocols

18 What command displays several statistics and encapsulation types for Ethernet interfaces?

19 Which of the basic IP management functions is provided by TCP?

Flow control using Source Quench messages
Reliable transport methods, using sequencing, and sliding window techniques*
Reachability testing to verify host connectivity using Echo and Echo Reply
MAC address resolution and caching

20 What term is given to a storage area dedicated to handling data while in transit?

cache
pipe burst
buffer* 21 The counter reads 2619 frames received and 765 frames captured after you have utilized your protocol analyzer to capture several packets on an ethernet IPX network. What is indicated by these statistics?

Excessive collisions
765 of 2619 frames detected by the network interface were discarded because they contained invalid checksums
The protocol analyzer is set for the incorrect ethernet frame type
2619 frames were seen by the network interface but only 765 frames met the criteria specified in a traffic filter*
22 Which bit notifies the connected device that congestion was experienced in the direction of the travelling frame?

FECN*
BECN
DE
CIR
23 The clear commands ____________.

Can be used to reset statistical counters, delete entries from internal router tables, or reset hardware logic*
Work by using the error messages generate by routers when a datagram exceeds its TTL
List the output of the currently running configuration and the state of the router
Can be used to isolate between a routing, data link, or physical infrastructure issue and an application/transport problem
24 Which of these commands will reset the counters displayed by the show frame-relay pvc command for interface serial 1?

clear interface serial 1
clear counters serial 1*
clear counters
clear all
25 Your local office installs a Nortel router and the corporate office installs a Cisco 2500 series router. Which frame encapsulation type should be run between the two routers?

IETF*
Cisco
Frame
Serial

26 What command will display all directly connected Cisco devices and information about the devices’ software, data link, and network configuration?

27 In Cisco terminology, the ______ of ______ is the boundary of the area that is affected by the network failure or problem.

28 A workstation cannot resolve AppleTalk names to their addresses but can ping the local router interface’s AppleTalk address. Which of these commands issued on the router might display useful information regarding the problem?

debug apple arp
show debug nbp
debug apple nbp*
debug apple zip

29 A standard ISDN RJ-45 connector has eight pins. Which of the pins provide the power source, as defined by the ISO 8877 standard?

Pins 5 and 8
Pins 3 and 5
Pins 3 and 6
Pins 1 and 2*

30 A ________ is a software algorithm that presents packets in a readable and logical format.

decoder
packet decode*
packet recoder
decoder packet 31 What Cisco IOS command can be used to display the AppleTalk name-to-address mapping table?

32 Which of the following are connectionless protocols?

IP*
ATM
TCP
UDP*
Novell IPX*
33 Your users are complaining that they cannot connect to a remote network with IPX NetBIOS applications. Which of these commands will bridge these packets?

ipx bridge
ipx nlsp
ipx nlsp enable
ipx type-20-propagation*
34 What information must you be able to provide when opening a TAC case?

‘show tech-support’ information*
Contract number*
Name, phone-number, and email address*
Company Name*
35 Which of these commands should be issued to view messages being sent to the console?

terminal monitor*
echo terminal
terminal echo
monitor terminal
36 How do you reset the counters displayed by the ‘show interfaces bri 1’ command?

clear interface bri 1
clear bri
clear arp
clear counters interface bri 1*
37 Which of the following commands is used on an AppleTalk network to find problems when neighbors become unreachable?

debug apple events*
debug apple traffic
protocol apple verbose
show apple rtmp

38 Per Cisco, the ‘show’ commands should provide enough details to diagnose ____ percent of all network failures.

25
50
75*
85

39 Which of the following is true of VLANs?

They define the broadcast domain*
They define the collision domain
They are unique to each workstation
They are only available on Ethernet

40 Which of the following tools is most useful for analyzing a reconfiguration, redesigning, and stress testing within a Cisco network?

Oscilloscope
Traffic Director
Cisco Netsys Baseliner*
Protocol Analyzers

station 41 Performing the ‘show interfaces ethernet0’ command displays a high number of collisions. Which of the following should be done next?

Perform the ‘show controllers ethernet’ command
Reload the router and shut down the interface and bring it back up
Remove all stations from the network and see whether the collisions stop
Clear all the Ethernet 0 counters using the ‘clear counters Ethernet 0’ command and then perform the ‘show interfaces’ command several times in succession*
42 A user on VLAN 1 cannot connect to a server on VLAN 2 on the same switch. Which of these are possible causes?

The user’s port is a SPAN port
The router does not have a sub-interface configured for VLAN 2*
The router has an access-list problem*
ISL trunking is not working properly*

43 CHAP requires which of the following?

A defined username*
Encrypted passwords
An external server running TACACS+
PPP*

44 Which Novell 802.3 encapsulation is the default for Cisco routers?

SAP
ARPA
SNAP
Novell-ether*

45 What command maps the path of a data packet through a network by incrementing the TTL value in the IP header?

ping
netstat
nbstat
traceroute*
46 Which of the following categories can be found in the Troubleshooting Engine?

Novell NetWare
IP*
RTMP
Network Management*

47 Issuing the command ‘show ipx servers’ displays 980 service entries. How many SAP update packets will be sent across the backbone every minute on a network running NLSP routing protocol?

0*
15
140
191

48 Which one of these commands will display the status of all three ITU-defined ISDN layers?

show isdn status*
show controller bri
show isdn q931
show interfaces bri

49 What does CSMA/CD stand for?

Collision Sensing Multiple Access/Collision Domain
Collision Standard Multiple Access/Carrier Detect
Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection*
Command Structure Multicast Address/Carrier Detect

50 What command will display debug information regarding EIGRP, RTMP, or AURP routing protocols?
51 You finish filling the capture buffer on the LANWatch network analyzer without using a capture filter. How do you display packets from a specific server?

This cannot be done
Cut and paste relevant packets into a text file
Redo the capture process and use a capture filter
Configure and use a display filter*

52 What command lists the encapsulation method, carrier transitions, and data terminal settings?

53 Which bit is set to indicate to the frame relay network that the frame can be dropped if a congested link is encountered?

CIR
FECN
DE*
BECN
54 The ‘show buffers’ command indicates that there have been 1119 big buffer misses. What is indicated by this reading?

Space was not available within the buffer pool―600 bytes of buffer memory was allocated
1119 packets have been discarded because of buffer allocation problems
1524 bytes of buffer memory has been allocated 1119 times*
1119 bytes of buffer memory has been allocated 1119 times

55 Which of these online Cisco products provides inventory management, change audit reports, a software image maker, and a system-logging analyzer?

TrafficDirector
Netsys Baseliner
Cisco Resource Manager Essentials*
VlanDirector

56 The local serial interface’s physical state is up but the line protocol is down. Which command would be used to trace management traffic to and from the interface?

debug frame-relay events
debug frame-relay lmi*
show frame-relay events
debug lmi

57 Which of the following commands issued on the router will display spanning-tree information?

show spantree
show neighbors cdp
show span*
show spanning-tree*

58 Within CCO documentation, which of these are available to the user?

debug command interface*
troubleshooting assistant
quick configuration guides*
configuration guides*
troubleshooting guides*

59 Repeatedly a 4500 series Cisco router is crashing unexpectedly and then immediately reloading. You enter a command in the router so that core dumps will be sent to a TFTP server at the IP address 10.240.10.3. What command was entered?

write core
exception dump 10.240.10.3*
copy crashinfo 10.240.10.3
ftp crashinfo 10.240.10.3

60 Several users cannot send email but can receive email messages. What should be checked first?

Ensure that access lists are enabled on interfaces located between the clients and their email server that deny POP3 traffic
Ensure the server is currently connected to the network
Ensure the locally attached router’s interface is set as administratively down
Ensure that access lists are enabled on the interfaces located between the clients and their email server for the purpose of denying SMTP traffic. If there are no access lists, ensure that SMTP traffic is being denied by the implicit ‘deny any’ command.*
61 Which TCP/IP reference model layer performs functions similar to the OSI model’s network layer?

Presentation
Protocol
Internet*
Transport

62 Which of the following are hardware components of a Windows client/server connection?

Bridge
Router*
Server*
Client*

63 A standard ISDN RJ-45 connector has eight pins. Which of the pins are used for transmission, as defined by the ISO 8877 standard?

Pins 5 and 8
Pins 3 and 6*
Pins 3 and 5
Pins 1 and 2

64 What information is provided by issuing the ‘show version’ command?

Reason for last upgrade
Hardware and software version*
Uptime*
Configuration version
Reason for last reload*

65 In Cisco terminology, the ________ is designed to implement changes in a network order to resolve networking problems.

network architecture
flowcontrol model
action plan*
data model

66 What is the purpose of the ping command?

To test routing protocols
To test reachability and connectivity*
To test the ICMP protocol
To gain interface status

67 You have just disabled the AppleTalk protocol from an old network interface. Approximately how long should you wait until configuring the zone list on a new interface?

10 minutes*
15 minutes
30 minutes
1 hour

68 What is the easiest way to turn off debugging?

no debug all
un all*
no debug
All of the above

69 Windows workstations configured with NetBIOS are unable to browse servers located within the domain using Network Neighborhood. All of the servers are located within the 10.23.22.0/24 network. What could be done so that the workstations can see the servers within their Network Neighborhood?

Add an access list disabling UDP ports 137, 138, and 139 on a router between the workstations and the servers
Configure the workstations to use a WINS server*
Add the workstations’ local router interface to a bridge group
Add an IP helper address of 10.23.22.255 and enable UDP forwarding on the locally attached router*

70 What is the purpose of the trace command?

To test the ICMP protocol
To provide path information by hop count*
Reachability and connectivity
To test routing protocols

71 Which of the basic IP management functions is provided by ICMP?

Flow control, using Source Quench messages*
Reachability testing to verify host connectivity (using Echo and Echo reply)*
Reliable transport methods which use sequencing and sliding window techniques
MAC address resolution and caching

72 You want to find the serial numbers of all line modules located within a Cisco 7513 router. Which of these commands can be used to display these values?

show diagbus*
show interface stats
show processes
show environment all

73 What are the two steps involved in the problem definition procedure of the Cisco troubleshooting model?

Consider possible causes of the problem
Create a concise, yet accurate, description of the problem*
Diagnose the exact problem
Obtain information regarding observed symptoms of the network problem*

74 Which of the following is the main purpose of the problem definition phase of the Cisco troubleshooting model?

To forma precise and concise problem statement which focuses the troubleshooting effort*
To eliminate causes not related to symptoms observed
To eliminate causes that may be related to the symptoms manifested
To create a working list of symptoms manifesting the problem

75 Which of the following are valid IPX network addresses?

CENTRAL.0000.0b35.3c1c*
PERIPHERAL.786d.2b01.1000*
9.78
009b.3a76.ca97

76 Which IEEE 802.3 encapsulation is the default for Cisco routers?

ARPA
SNAP
Novell-ether
SAP*

77 A company is implementing DHCP. The new DHCP clients on network 10.20.78.0/24 are not being assigned IP addresses by the DHCP server with IP address 10.20.75.3. Which of the following are likely causes?

The DHCP server is not properly connected to the network
The locally attached router is not configured with a helper address pointing to the DHCP server address*
The DHCP clients have been configured with an invalid subnet*
The hosts are not being assigned IP addresses within the correct address space

78 Which of the following commands should be used to see the contents of a route map?

show memory
show traffic
show route-map*
show running-config*

79 What Catalyst command displays information on neighboring Cisco devices?

80 While managing a network, long-term traffic statistics can be used to help do which of the following?

Expose areas of potential network problems
Provide a history of network growth*
Plan for the future expansion requirements of the network*
Generate a projection of infrastructure equipment CPU utilization

ICMP 81 The traceroute command ___________.

Can be used to isolate a routing, data link, or physical infrastructure issue
Works by using the error messages generated by routers when a datagram exceeds its TTL*
Lists the output of the currently running configuration and the state of the router
Can be used to reset statistical counters, delete entries from internal router tables, or reset hardware logic

82 Which of the following are connection-oriented protocols?

Novell IPX
ATM*
IP
TCP*
AppleTalk ATP*

83 What information is provided by the ‘show version’ command?

Configuration version
Software and hardware version*
Equipment uptime*
Reason for last upgrade

84 How do network analyzers collect data?

All packets are copied into a buffer if they meet the specified criteria*
Random packets are selected if they meet the specified criteria
Random packets are selected based on the line speed of the media
All packets are analyzed as they pass through the analyzer

85 Which of the following are provided by spanning tree?

Redundant paths while preventing loops*
Trunking multiple VLANs onto FDDI interfaces
A single path through multiple subnets
MAC layer address translation

86 You perform the ‘show interfaces’ command on your locally connected router and are given the following:

Router>show interfaces Ethernet 0

Ethernet0 is down, line protocol is down

Which of the following best describes the problem?

The ethernet 0 interface has been disabled administratively
The network has a protocol mismatch
The hub ports that the clients are connected to have malfunctioned
The network cable between the router and the hub is spliced*

87 An ISDN call initially succeeds, but pings and other packets fail. Which of the following are likely causes of the problem?

Faulty cable
Incorrect speeds between switch and router
Misconfigured CHAP*
Incorrect or missing route*

88 What command displays the Network Services Acces Point address?

show interfaces ethernet
show interfaces ATM*
show interfaces fddi
show interfaces serial

89 Which of these applications does a Macintosh user use to select resources?

Selector
Finder
Control Panel
Chooser*

90 Which of these commands will provide a list of IPX routes on the network?

show ipx route*
show ipx traffic
debug ipx ipxwan
show ipx servers
91 Which of the following commands will gather information regarding DLCI information?

write term*
show frame-relay ilmi
show interface serial
show running-config*

92 What command deletes all IPX routes or a subset of routes?

clear ipx route

93 When troubleshooting how many configuration changes should be made before validating results?

1*
2
3
4

94 Which of the following are steps in the Cisco troubleshooting model?

Problem definition*
Create an action plan*
Define the boundary of the process
Contemplate possible solutions
Observe results*

95 Which Ethernet encapsulation is the default for Cisco routers?

ARPA*
Novell-ether
SAP
SNAP

96 What is the name of the layer 2 standard which the International Telecommunications Union has defined for ISDN?

I.430
Q.132
Q.921*
Q.931

97 Which of the following switching modes keeps a detailed table of traffic statistics and flows that can be exported to a database and charted?

Optimum
Autonomous
Fast
Netflow*

98 Which of the following is the protocol number for ICMP within the IP header?

1*
17
45
88

99 When troubleshooting switches and routers, administrators should consider each element in the network by using a(n) _____________.

Action plan
Default approach
Layered approach*
Cautious approach

100 What simple software tools are used to test for device availability and reachability?

network monitors*
network analyzers
cable tester
NMS (Network Management Systems)

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2002-08-13 10:14 TESTKING.COMPTIA.NETWORK.PLUS.N10-002.VERSION.2.0-JGT
2002-08-13 10:14 TESTKING.MICROSOFT.MCAD.MCSD.070-306.VERSION.2.1-JGT
2002-08-13 10:14 TESTKING.MICROSOFT.MCSE.070-080.I.E.A.K.VERSION.1-JGT
2002-08-13 10:14 TESTKING.MICROSOFT.MCSE.070-086.S.M.S.VERSION.1-JGT
2002-08-13 10:14 TESTKING.MICROSOFT.MCSE.070-088.PROXY.VERSION.1-JGT
2002-08-13 10:14 TESTKING.ORACLE.OCA.1Z0-007.INTRODUCTION.TO.ORACLE.9I.VERSION.2.0-JGT
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-028-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-016-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-019-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-015-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-029-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-056-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-057-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-080-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-081-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-086-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-088-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-091-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-098-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-100-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-105-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-175-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-176-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-210-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-215-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-216-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-217-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-218-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-219-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-21x.Bundle-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-220-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-221-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-222-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-223-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-224-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-225-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-226-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-227-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-228-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-229-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-230-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-232-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-234-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-244-RBS
2002-08-13 10:15 Self.Test.Software.Microsoft.Practice.Test.70-270-RBS
2002-08-17 16:18 Sybex.OCA.OCP.Oracle9i.DBA.Fundamentals.I.Study.Guide.eBook-ROR
2002-08-19 04:04 CCDA.SimulationExams.v1.2.0.Regged-iNTENSiON
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.MICROSOFT.WIN2K.PROFESSIONAL.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V2.0-JGT
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.COMPTIA.I.NET.PLUS.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V2.5-JGT
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.COMPTIA.SERVER.PLUS.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V2.5-JGT
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.COMPTIA.A.PLUS.CORE.AND.OS.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V2.5-JGT
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.COMPTIA.NETWORK.PLUS.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V2.5-JGT
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.CIW.FOUNDATIONS.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V1.2-JGT
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.CHECK.POINT.CCSA.CP2000.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V1.2-JGT
2002-08-21 22:11 SIMULATIONEXAMS.CISCO.CCNP.CCDP.FOUNDATIONS.PRACTICE.EXAMS.V2.0-JGT
2002-08-22 20:04 Boson.Router.Simulator.v4.08.WinALL.CRACKED-LUCiD
2002-07-30 16:12 2,373,662 tk640-607v5.pdf
2002-08-16 18:49 1,525,956 tk640607v7.0.pdf